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Benjamin Scott's avatar

This paper reads like the authors are sure the causation is "states don't establish control of border areas going back centuries" -> "even in modern times border regions rebel more". Couldn't it be the opposite? Did they disprove the alternate hypothesis, that the lack of control of the NW frontier (a mountainous, tribal region) was caused by the increased rebelliousness of the region?

One might think that the Northwest Frontier of the British Raj was always more like Afghanistan in nature than it was like the rest of the subcontinent. Historically, central Afghanistan has proven much harder for a power to control than central India.

Correct me if the paper doesn't actually make this assumption.

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